Mc Posted January 18, 2008 Report Posted January 18, 2008 For a particular example: 2 outs and runner on 3rd (who had reached based on something other than an error). Batter pops up in foul territory, fielder drops the routine foul flyball. Next pitch the batter singles to RF and the baserunner scores. Is this an EARNED or UNEARNED run? and is an error charged to the fielder even though no one got on base nor advanced on that particular play? To add to this scenario, say the next batter then homers and 2 runs score, are these 2 runs earned?
besbolbenbedygud Posted January 18, 2008 Report Posted January 18, 2008 Any run scored after the missed (foul) pop up would be unearned. And even though no runner advanced on the foul ball the fileder would still be given an error. Didn't look it up but unless things have changed that should be the call.......
Guest Orangeboy Posted January 18, 2008 Report Posted January 18, 2008 Any run scored after the missed (foul) pop up would be unearned. And even though no runner advanced on the foul ball the fileder would still be given an error. Didn't look it up but unless things have changed that should be the call....... That is the latest I've heard on these situations. So in the book you would give the hiter a hit and the fielder an error correct?
Mc Posted January 18, 2008 Author Report Posted January 18, 2008 Any run scored after the missed (foul) pop up would be unearned. And even though no runner advanced on the foul ball the fileder would still be given an error. Didn't look it up but unless things have changed that should be the call....... That is the latest I've heard on these situations. So in the book you would give the hiter a hit and the fielder an error correct? That is the way I would score it and the run would be unearned because the popup should have ended the inning.
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