HSB&Rangers Posted April 22, 2011 Report Share Posted April 22, 2011 If he is swinging at the pitch or not. Also if his hand is in the strike zone it is a dead ball strike. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MrUmp1 Posted April 22, 2011 Report Share Posted April 22, 2011 I don't know how many times I have heard the hands are part of the bat, well go buy a bat and see if it comes with a pair of hands!!! HSB has it right, if swinging it is a dead ball strike or if for some reason he has his hands in the strike zone maybe attempting to bunt. This sometimes is a tough one because it could hit the bat before or at the same time it is hitting the hands. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
walldrill Posted July 17, 2011 Report Share Posted July 17, 2011 Saw this in a mustang level allstar game and I've seen it at that level several other time. Don't really see it at the higher levels. Runners on 1st. Pitcher toes rubber and runner does an early steal and reaches before pitcher breaks to go to the plate. Batter makes contact and fouls ball off. Does runner have to go back?Same scenario and ball is popped up. Does runner have to go back and tag up at the previous base?Have seen this several times at this level and always wondered what the correct call is? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MrUmp1 Posted July 20, 2011 Report Share Posted July 20, 2011 if the runner reaches before the time of the pitch, which is when the pitcher starts his motion to pitch, then he has aquired that base and would not have to go back in either instance. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cncoc2013 Posted March 7, 2012 Report Share Posted March 7, 2012 [quote name="MrUmp1" post="348353" timestamp="1204974923"]The ball is dead immediately, all runners advance 1 base from the base they occupied at the time of the pitch. Except if it is a strike for the third out of an inning. You made me go to the book for that one LOL... and don't ask me why the exception all I did was write what was in the rule book. Hope I never have to explain that one to a coach lol.[/quote]Rule 6.05 (n) With two out, a runner on third base, and two strikes on the batter, the runner attempts to steal home base on a legal pitch and the ball touches the runner in the batter’s strike zone. The umpire shall call “Strike Three,†the batter is out and the run shall not count; before two are out, the umpire shall call “Strike Three,†the ball is dead, and the run counts. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
enforb48 Posted March 17, 2012 Report Share Posted March 17, 2012 I'm new to baseball and last night I saw a situation that had me baffled. A Nederland player hit a fly ball and it was mishandled by the PNG player, the runners advanced and Nederland scored also the hitter reached first base. The umpire called the hitter out at first base after a consultation with the base umpire. I talked to some people around me about why he was called out and was told that the umpire had called that the ball had landed in the infield so he was out, my impression was that if the ball had landed on the outfield grass he would have been safe, am I missing something? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MrUmp1 Posted March 17, 2012 Report Share Posted March 17, 2012 The infield fly rule was called. Infield fly rule is runners on first and second or bases loaded and less than two outs and a fly ball that can reasonably caught by an infielder. Batter is out and runners advance at their own risk. It does not have to be within the confines of the dirt just that an infielder is under the ball and should be able to catch it. This is called when the ball is at it's apex so the runners know it has been called and they should know that they do not have to advance but if they do it is at their own risk. This keeps a fielder from intentionally not catching a ball to try and get a double play. Last night both the home plate umpire and the first base umpire called the infield fly and all the coaches heard it, maybe not the fans. There was no consultation between umpires on that call I was there and know exactly what transpired. Infield fly rule is the same for high school, college and pro ball. Look up the pro rule book online and read the rule and it will help you understand. Thanks for the question. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MrUmp1 Posted March 17, 2012 Report Share Posted March 17, 2012 Here i pasted it so all can see the exact wording.The rule In Major League Baseball, "Infield Fly" is explained by rule 2.00 (Definitions of terms), and rule 6.05e (Batter is out). Other leagues have similar rules. Since the purpose is to prevent double plays, the rule applies only when there are fewer than two outs, and there is a force play at third base (i.e., there are runners at first and second base, or the bases are loaded).[1] In these situations, if a fly ball is in fair play, and in the umpire's judgment it is catchable by an infielder with ordinary effort, the umpire shall call "infield fly", and the batter will be out[2] regardless of whether the ball is actually caught in flight. Umpires typically raise one arm straight up to signal to everyone that the rule is in effect. If "infield fly" is called and the fly ball is caught, it is treated exactly as an ordinary fly ball; the batter is out, there is no force, and the runners must tag up. On the other hand, if "infield fly" is called and the ball lands fair without being caught, the batter is still out, and there is no force, but the runners are not required to tag up. In either case, the ball is live, and the runners may advance at the risk of being doubled-off if the ball is caught. [edit] Foul balls If the fly ball is near the foul lines, the umpire is to declare "infield fly, if fair." If the ball is not caught and ends up foul (including if it lands fair and then rolls foul), infield fly is cancelled, and the play is treated as an ordinary foul ball. In contrast, if the ball lands foul and then rolls fair, infield fly takes effect, and the batter is out.[3] [edit] "Ordinary effort" Any fair fly ball that could have been caught by an infielder with ordinary effort is covered by the rule regardless of where the ball is caught. The ball need not be caught by an infielder, nor must it be caught in the infield. For example, if an infielder retreats to the outfield in an effort to catch a fly ball with ordinary effort, the infield Fly Rule may be invoked, even if an outfielder ultimately caught the ball, and even if no infielder attempted to make a play on the ball. Similarly, a fly ball within the infield that could have been caught by an infielder with ordinary effort, but is caught by an outfielder, would also be covered by the rule. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fastball Posted March 18, 2012 Report Share Posted March 18, 2012 Yestersday a situation occured where an umpire called a game at a school were he has been stuck from doing so. Both the Head Coach and Athelitic Director are new at the school and were unaware. MrUmp1 is this game official? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MrUmp1 Posted March 18, 2012 Report Share Posted March 18, 2012 I can not comment on this situation Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
casualobserver Posted March 19, 2012 Report Share Posted March 19, 2012 MrUmp,At the HS level, what is the rule for a left hander on the mound making a pick off move to 1st base? I think I know the rule but I heard a coach of the said pitcher's team say something that intrigued me and would like your take on the rule.Thanks! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MrUmp1 Posted March 19, 2012 Report Share Posted March 19, 2012 Doesn't matter the level, free foot cannot completly go past the back edge of the pitchers plate and he must step directly towards the bag. You may here of the 45 degree line but that is just a good indicator of where he is stepping. There is so much about this it is to much to type. There are many sites that have the major league rule book online and if you read the pitching rule it should explain it all to you. If you have a specific question about one part I can try to answer. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
casualobserver Posted March 19, 2012 Report Share Posted March 19, 2012 What does the pitcher's knee, if anything have to do with it? What this particular lefty would do is bring his leg straight up and then cock his knee back "behind" the rubber, not necessarily his foot and then make the pick off move. It was in my eyes, it was done strictly to deceive the runner, which i think is not allowed. What should be this ruling. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MrUmp1 Posted March 20, 2012 Report Share Posted March 20, 2012 The knee breaking the back plane of the rubber does not constitute a balk. It must be his entire foot. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
casualobserver Posted March 21, 2012 Report Share Posted March 21, 2012 Thanks!Just curious because it was definitely a move done to deceive the runner, so i didn't know if that constituted a balk or not. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hitman009 Posted March 27, 2012 Report Share Posted March 27, 2012 question: runner on first. 2 strikes on the batter.......a swinging strike three and the kid comes out of the box and crosses home plate. while the runner on first is stealing second. contact is made. what is the ruleing. Is the runner at 1st out or just has to return to 1st? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MrUmp1 Posted March 27, 2012 Report Share Posted March 27, 2012 Batter is out and runner can not advance. If the runner is thrown out then interference is ignored and in your case would be a strike em out throw em out. This would be very rare for this to happen since most of the time a hit and run is on and most managers do not call this with two strikes on the batter. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hitman009 Posted April 2, 2012 Report Share Posted April 2, 2012 is a balk a dead ball. ex. a balk is called, but the pitcher DOES throw the ball and the batter swings and hits a HR/1B/2B/. I was always told that the batter/manager gets to choose. the balk or the result of the play? We have had 2 calls this year by umpires that said it was a dead ball. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MrUmp1 Posted April 2, 2012 Report Share Posted April 2, 2012 Ok there is a difference depending on league. In Federation High School ball it is an immediate dead ball. In the pro's, college, and as far as I know summer league ball it is a delayed dead ball. Why there is a difference is beyond me but it is. So the umpires were correct in the high school game to call a dead ball. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hitman009 Posted April 4, 2012 Report Share Posted April 4, 2012 [quote name="MrUmp1" post="1205372" timestamp="1333400175"]Ok there is a difference depending on league. In Federation High School ball it is an immediate dead ball. In the pro's, college, and as far as I know summer league ball it is a delayed dead ball. Why there is a difference is beyond me but it is. So the umpires were correct in the high school game to call a dead ball.[/quote]ok. thank you. you might want to talk about this in the weekly meetings. I talked to 5 different umps and they said you have the CHOICE in High School too. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MrUmp1 Posted April 5, 2012 Report Share Posted April 5, 2012 We have talked about this on numerous occasions. All we can do is guide our fellow umpires and give them the tools and learning to know the game, how they take that info and use it is up to them. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bballdude Posted April 18, 2012 Report Share Posted April 18, 2012 Beyond eye black, I've been seeing lots of players excessively painting their faces.Is there a specific NFHS rule regarding players wearing "face paint"? Is the rule specific by position (i.e.-Pitchers are restricted, etc.) and can you point me to that rule(s)? Thanks! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MrUmp1 Posted April 18, 2012 Report Share Posted April 18, 2012 There is no specific rule that I have found or know of. The one thing that is a problem is that you sweat, wipe your face, if you get it on your hands then touch the ball you are in violation of applying a foreign substance to the ball. Now you have a problem. Thats something you can be ejected for. Greg Maddox was once ask about it and he said he would never wear it cause it would incite the hitter and thats not what he wanted to do. I will check with some real gurus and see what they have to say. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bballdude Posted April 19, 2012 Report Share Posted April 19, 2012 [quote name="MrUmp1" post="1212252" timestamp="1334782685"]There is no specific rule that I have found or know of. The one thing that is a problem is that you sweat, wipe your face, if you get it on your hands then touch the ball you are in violation of applying a foreign substance to the ball. Now you have a problem. Thats something you can be ejected for. Greg Maddox was once ask about it and he said he would never wear it cause it would incite the hitter and thats not what he wanted to do. I will check with some real gurus and see what they have to say.[/quote]Thanks for the reply and I would appreciate anything you can find on it. The foreign substance rule could certainly come into play. I assume an umpire could deem excessive face paint as a "distraction" which is certainly under his judgment to restrict however I have not seen any umpire make a pitcher remove it until the other night. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
oldman Posted April 24, 2012 Report Share Posted April 24, 2012 Ok, I have a situation that I saw today. Not sure if any runners were on base ( doesn't really matter ) . Batter pops up on the 1st base line. First baseman is running up the line to get under the ball. Batter runner runs over the 1st Baseman before the catch is made. The runner IMO didn't run over the fielder intentionally, but he did not avoid the fielder.Umpire ( plate ) called the ball foul, incidental contact and put the batter back in the box. Here is what I think should have happened. At the minimum the batter is out for interfering with the fielders attempt to catch the ball. Worst case the batter is out and ejected for malicious contact. Agree or disagree? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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